Hello. I am one of those folks who plugs in and plays without knowing a thing about the gear used. I feel like an idiot for saying that, but I'd rather not have anyone assume I know anything!
I have been trying to suss out exactly how to accomplish the sound I'm looking for and have an idea of how to get there, but need to hear the voice of experience before I go dropping loads of cash to get it. I notice that when I run my bass dry (no effects), the low end response is fantastic, as is the overall tone. When I add my fuzz pedal to the chain, the low end diminishes, even though the overall volume is noticably increased. So, to change that, I thought why not run one cabinet wet (fuzz added) and one dry?
So, following through with that, my plan is this: run one signal from my bass to the preamp, split the signal into two, run channel one into an effect pedal, then into channel one of my Aphex Aural Exciter, then channel one of the stereo power amp, which then feeds a 4x10 cabinet. Channel two would bypass the effect pedal and feed directly into channel two of the Aphex unit, then to channel two of the power amp, which outputs to a 1x15 cabinet.
The equipment I have to work with is the following:
Alembic F1X preamp
Aphex Aural Exciter (two channel)
QSC USA 900 power amp (450W RMS per channel @ 4 ohms)
Fuzz effect pedal
The real question here is can the full range output of the preamp be used, or will it damage the pedal effect? I have the option of selecting +4 db or -10 db on the inputs of the Aphex unit, and both are set at -10 db. Again, I know nothing about this stuff, but I assume that is some sort of signal reduction to avoid cooking the Aphex unit since the signal is coming directly out of the full range output of the preamp. But, perhaps not. Is it possible (or necessary) to create the same kind of +4/-10 option between the preamp and the effect pedal? Am I worried about a problem that doesn't exist?
Alternately, and I haven't tried this since I'm away from my equipment for the weekend, I may be able to send a signal out of the effects loop on the preamp, even using a Y to split it yet still return the effects loop if required on that preamp, and use that effects loop "send" to get a signal to the pedal, and in turn to the Aphex unit and power amp.
Is any of this possible without destroying my gear? Or am I unknowingly contemplating a violation of the laws of physics?
TIA for any help you can provide,
Ryan H
I have been trying to suss out exactly how to accomplish the sound I'm looking for and have an idea of how to get there, but need to hear the voice of experience before I go dropping loads of cash to get it. I notice that when I run my bass dry (no effects), the low end response is fantastic, as is the overall tone. When I add my fuzz pedal to the chain, the low end diminishes, even though the overall volume is noticably increased. So, to change that, I thought why not run one cabinet wet (fuzz added) and one dry?
So, following through with that, my plan is this: run one signal from my bass to the preamp, split the signal into two, run channel one into an effect pedal, then into channel one of my Aphex Aural Exciter, then channel one of the stereo power amp, which then feeds a 4x10 cabinet. Channel two would bypass the effect pedal and feed directly into channel two of the Aphex unit, then to channel two of the power amp, which outputs to a 1x15 cabinet.
The equipment I have to work with is the following:
Alembic F1X preamp
Aphex Aural Exciter (two channel)
QSC USA 900 power amp (450W RMS per channel @ 4 ohms)
Fuzz effect pedal
The real question here is can the full range output of the preamp be used, or will it damage the pedal effect? I have the option of selecting +4 db or -10 db on the inputs of the Aphex unit, and both are set at -10 db. Again, I know nothing about this stuff, but I assume that is some sort of signal reduction to avoid cooking the Aphex unit since the signal is coming directly out of the full range output of the preamp. But, perhaps not. Is it possible (or necessary) to create the same kind of +4/-10 option between the preamp and the effect pedal? Am I worried about a problem that doesn't exist?
Alternately, and I haven't tried this since I'm away from my equipment for the weekend, I may be able to send a signal out of the effects loop on the preamp, even using a Y to split it yet still return the effects loop if required on that preamp, and use that effects loop "send" to get a signal to the pedal, and in turn to the Aphex unit and power amp.
Is any of this possible without destroying my gear? Or am I unknowingly contemplating a violation of the laws of physics?
TIA for any help you can provide,
Ryan H