• Ernie Ball
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jeze

New member
Joined
Mar 13, 2010
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4
Hi, I have bought a SR5 HH a couple of months ago. At that time I was playing a SUB5 for some years and I'm really content with its sound.

The idea was to buy a SR5 in order to have the SUB5's sound but a better playability and finish.

Now, the SR5 is a really nice instrument, but somehow I like the 2-Bnd-EQ of the SUB5 better. I think the bass EQ of the SUB5 features exactly the deep frequencies that make a bass sound fat without increasing the "boomy" deep mids. Usually I used to play the SUB5 with the bass eq fully turned in and it just sounded great.

Now I realized that the SR5 HH 3-bnd-EQ is kind of different. If I increase the bass EQ too much, it sounds very "boomy", so usually I stay away from the bass eq.

I have a couple of questions:
- which SR5 EQ setting comes close to the SUB5: is it rather the mid EQ in the "0 position" or all mids turned out?

- what are the center frequencies of the SUB5 and SR5 EQ?

- is there a chance to midify the SR5 withe the SUB5 2-bnd-EQ and how could this bee done?

Thanks!
JeZe

Edit: just found that:
http://www.ernieball.com/forums/music-man-basses/42214-stingray-sound-examples.html

The sound difference described in the analysis is exactly what I am hearing... Now: isn't it possible to have the same bass behaviour like the 2bnd in the 3bnd-eq?
 
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